[fvc-wat-disc] Possibly dumb question on FPTP...

[Jennifer Ross]

I watched an interesting Ted Talk from Elizabeth May on this just the other
day.  Because, one of the things I had been using was the fact that I can
vote in these horse races by way of making a bet.  And you know what?  I
can WIN even though my horse wasn't the first past the post!

I started to write it, but Elizabeth May is a LOT better in explaining
things than I am, so I'll leave it to her:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=xcwsSDynCcc



On Sun, Feb 4, 2018 at 4:41 PM, Dave Arthur <arthurd23 at bell.net> wrote:

> Hi Jay
>
> The term comes from horse racing where the first horse that passes the
> post wins and all the others lose and get nothing.
>
> That’s just what happens in each riding where the candidate that gets the
> most votes wins and the other candidates lose and all the votes that they
> received have no influence on the overall results whatsoever.
>
> The idea is that all votes should have some effect on the overall
> representation which is what PR achieves.
>
> Dave
>
>
>
> Sent from Mail <https://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=550986> for
> Windows 10
>
>
>
> *From: *Jay Judkowitz <judkowitz at gmail.com>
> *Sent: *Sunday, February 4, 2018 3:14 PM
> *To: *FVC Waterloo Region Discussion <fvc-wat-disc at listserv.thinkers.org>
> *Subject: *[fvc-wat-disc] Possibly dumb question on FPTP...
>
>
>
> So, does anyone know why it's actually called "first past the post"?
>
>
>
> That name makes it sound like there is some marker there and it's a race
> to pass it.  Like, first past 30% wins.  But, there is no post at all,
> nothing that can be determined even knowing the number of candidates.
> Shouldn't it be called something like "Plurality Voting" or "Plurality
> Takes All" or something more descriptive?
>
>
>
> Thanks in advance for the education!
>
>
>
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-- 
No other Western democratic country concentrates as much political power in
the hands of one person as Canada does with her Prime Minister.
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